“Wage slavery”, “Grammar nazi”: what is this non-literal usage called?












-1
















  • "wage slavery": it's not literally slavery.

  • "grammar nazi": they're not literally Nazis.


I don't think it's a metaphor.



In a way, it has the effect of analogy, that is, giving something to compare against to get a point across but a mix with hyperbole.










share|improve this question

























  • It is an interesting point. I am not aware of a technical term for this increasingly common feature of English. Other languages go about the same thing differently. What we are doing is using one noun as a modifier for another. But in German, typically the modifier noun 'lohn' is fused to the noun it modifies: 'lohnsklaverei'. In French they say the modifying word is an adjective - the participle 'salarié: 'l'esclavage salarié' (waged slavery). Mnglodern Greek does the same in a different order: 'misthoti sklavia' (μισθωτή σκλαβιά). Do we need a name for the adjectival use of nouns?

    – Tuffy
    2 days ago











  • What exactly are you asking? What the pattern 'noun noun' is? It's called an attributive noun](en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Noun_adjunct), but your pattern is not clear from two examples.

    – Mitch
    2 days ago











  • @Mitch while techinically you are correct that my question is about noun being used to describe another noun but it's actually aimed at something deeper. there is no such thing as slavery on wages as there is no such thing as nazi ever enforced grammar. I was wondering if this form of speech is classified as something formal

    – ealeon
    20 hours ago











  • You should clarify in your question that it is the semantics and not the grammar that you are asking about. But then it is a non-literal figure of speech. Something like 'metaphor' or 'semantic drift'. An analogy without introduction with 'like' or 'as' is called a 'metaphor'.

    – Mitch
    20 hours ago


















-1
















  • "wage slavery": it's not literally slavery.

  • "grammar nazi": they're not literally Nazis.


I don't think it's a metaphor.



In a way, it has the effect of analogy, that is, giving something to compare against to get a point across but a mix with hyperbole.










share|improve this question

























  • It is an interesting point. I am not aware of a technical term for this increasingly common feature of English. Other languages go about the same thing differently. What we are doing is using one noun as a modifier for another. But in German, typically the modifier noun 'lohn' is fused to the noun it modifies: 'lohnsklaverei'. In French they say the modifying word is an adjective - the participle 'salarié: 'l'esclavage salarié' (waged slavery). Mnglodern Greek does the same in a different order: 'misthoti sklavia' (μισθωτή σκλαβιά). Do we need a name for the adjectival use of nouns?

    – Tuffy
    2 days ago











  • What exactly are you asking? What the pattern 'noun noun' is? It's called an attributive noun](en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Noun_adjunct), but your pattern is not clear from two examples.

    – Mitch
    2 days ago











  • @Mitch while techinically you are correct that my question is about noun being used to describe another noun but it's actually aimed at something deeper. there is no such thing as slavery on wages as there is no such thing as nazi ever enforced grammar. I was wondering if this form of speech is classified as something formal

    – ealeon
    20 hours ago











  • You should clarify in your question that it is the semantics and not the grammar that you are asking about. But then it is a non-literal figure of speech. Something like 'metaphor' or 'semantic drift'. An analogy without introduction with 'like' or 'as' is called a 'metaphor'.

    – Mitch
    20 hours ago
















-1












-1








-1









  • "wage slavery": it's not literally slavery.

  • "grammar nazi": they're not literally Nazis.


I don't think it's a metaphor.



In a way, it has the effect of analogy, that is, giving something to compare against to get a point across but a mix with hyperbole.










share|improve this question

















  • "wage slavery": it's not literally slavery.

  • "grammar nazi": they're not literally Nazis.


I don't think it's a metaphor.



In a way, it has the effect of analogy, that is, giving something to compare against to get a point across but a mix with hyperbole.







american-english figurative






share|improve this question















share|improve this question













share|improve this question




share|improve this question








edited 2 hours ago









Mitch

51.4k15103214




51.4k15103214










asked 2 days ago









ealeonealeon

12328




12328













  • It is an interesting point. I am not aware of a technical term for this increasingly common feature of English. Other languages go about the same thing differently. What we are doing is using one noun as a modifier for another. But in German, typically the modifier noun 'lohn' is fused to the noun it modifies: 'lohnsklaverei'. In French they say the modifying word is an adjective - the participle 'salarié: 'l'esclavage salarié' (waged slavery). Mnglodern Greek does the same in a different order: 'misthoti sklavia' (μισθωτή σκλαβιά). Do we need a name for the adjectival use of nouns?

    – Tuffy
    2 days ago











  • What exactly are you asking? What the pattern 'noun noun' is? It's called an attributive noun](en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Noun_adjunct), but your pattern is not clear from two examples.

    – Mitch
    2 days ago











  • @Mitch while techinically you are correct that my question is about noun being used to describe another noun but it's actually aimed at something deeper. there is no such thing as slavery on wages as there is no such thing as nazi ever enforced grammar. I was wondering if this form of speech is classified as something formal

    – ealeon
    20 hours ago











  • You should clarify in your question that it is the semantics and not the grammar that you are asking about. But then it is a non-literal figure of speech. Something like 'metaphor' or 'semantic drift'. An analogy without introduction with 'like' or 'as' is called a 'metaphor'.

    – Mitch
    20 hours ago





















  • It is an interesting point. I am not aware of a technical term for this increasingly common feature of English. Other languages go about the same thing differently. What we are doing is using one noun as a modifier for another. But in German, typically the modifier noun 'lohn' is fused to the noun it modifies: 'lohnsklaverei'. In French they say the modifying word is an adjective - the participle 'salarié: 'l'esclavage salarié' (waged slavery). Mnglodern Greek does the same in a different order: 'misthoti sklavia' (μισθωτή σκλαβιά). Do we need a name for the adjectival use of nouns?

    – Tuffy
    2 days ago











  • What exactly are you asking? What the pattern 'noun noun' is? It's called an attributive noun](en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Noun_adjunct), but your pattern is not clear from two examples.

    – Mitch
    2 days ago











  • @Mitch while techinically you are correct that my question is about noun being used to describe another noun but it's actually aimed at something deeper. there is no such thing as slavery on wages as there is no such thing as nazi ever enforced grammar. I was wondering if this form of speech is classified as something formal

    – ealeon
    20 hours ago











  • You should clarify in your question that it is the semantics and not the grammar that you are asking about. But then it is a non-literal figure of speech. Something like 'metaphor' or 'semantic drift'. An analogy without introduction with 'like' or 'as' is called a 'metaphor'.

    – Mitch
    20 hours ago



















It is an interesting point. I am not aware of a technical term for this increasingly common feature of English. Other languages go about the same thing differently. What we are doing is using one noun as a modifier for another. But in German, typically the modifier noun 'lohn' is fused to the noun it modifies: 'lohnsklaverei'. In French they say the modifying word is an adjective - the participle 'salarié: 'l'esclavage salarié' (waged slavery). Mnglodern Greek does the same in a different order: 'misthoti sklavia' (μισθωτή σκλαβιά). Do we need a name for the adjectival use of nouns?

– Tuffy
2 days ago





It is an interesting point. I am not aware of a technical term for this increasingly common feature of English. Other languages go about the same thing differently. What we are doing is using one noun as a modifier for another. But in German, typically the modifier noun 'lohn' is fused to the noun it modifies: 'lohnsklaverei'. In French they say the modifying word is an adjective - the participle 'salarié: 'l'esclavage salarié' (waged slavery). Mnglodern Greek does the same in a different order: 'misthoti sklavia' (μισθωτή σκλαβιά). Do we need a name for the adjectival use of nouns?

– Tuffy
2 days ago













What exactly are you asking? What the pattern 'noun noun' is? It's called an attributive noun](en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Noun_adjunct), but your pattern is not clear from two examples.

– Mitch
2 days ago





What exactly are you asking? What the pattern 'noun noun' is? It's called an attributive noun](en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Noun_adjunct), but your pattern is not clear from two examples.

– Mitch
2 days ago













@Mitch while techinically you are correct that my question is about noun being used to describe another noun but it's actually aimed at something deeper. there is no such thing as slavery on wages as there is no such thing as nazi ever enforced grammar. I was wondering if this form of speech is classified as something formal

– ealeon
20 hours ago





@Mitch while techinically you are correct that my question is about noun being used to describe another noun but it's actually aimed at something deeper. there is no such thing as slavery on wages as there is no such thing as nazi ever enforced grammar. I was wondering if this form of speech is classified as something formal

– ealeon
20 hours ago













You should clarify in your question that it is the semantics and not the grammar that you are asking about. But then it is a non-literal figure of speech. Something like 'metaphor' or 'semantic drift'. An analogy without introduction with 'like' or 'as' is called a 'metaphor'.

– Mitch
20 hours ago







You should clarify in your question that it is the semantics and not the grammar that you are asking about. But then it is a non-literal figure of speech. Something like 'metaphor' or 'semantic drift'. An analogy without introduction with 'like' or 'as' is called a 'metaphor'.

– Mitch
20 hours ago












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