The meaning of causative 'have'
(1) He had a specialist examine his son.
(2) He had his son examined by a specialist.
About this pair, The Cambridge Grammar of the English Language (Page 1236) says:
we have equivalence between (1) and (2)
This I think means that we have equivalence in meaning between them.
But as for an apparently similar pair, Paul M. Postal says in his paper "On Raising" (page 320):
Thus, on one reading at least, the following are not semantically equivalent:
(86) a. Tom had Melvin interrogate the witness.
b. Tom had the witness interrogated by Melvin.
I don't see any reason for treating the examples in CGEL and 'On Raising' differently, so why is it that CGEL says the passivation doesn't change the meaning whereas Postal says it does change the meaning "on one reading at least"?
passive-voice causative-verbs
asked 6 mins ago
JK2JK2
37711751
add a comment |
(1) He had a specialist examine his son.
(2) He had his son examined by a specialist.
About this pair, The Cambridge Grammar of the English Language (Page 1236) says:
we have equivalence between (1) and (2)
This I think means that we have equivalence in meaning between them.
But as for an apparently similar pair, Paul M. Postal says in his paper "On Raising" (page 320):
Thus, on one reading at least, the following are not semantically equivalent:
(86) a. Tom had Melvin interrogate the witness.
b. Tom had the witness interrogated by Melvin.
I don't see any reason for treating the examples in CGEL and 'On Raising' differently, so why is it that CGEL says the passivation doesn't change the meaning whereas Postal says it does change the meaning "on one reading at least"?
passive-voice causative-verbs
asked 6 mins ago
JK2JK2
37711751
add a comment |
(1) He had a specialist examine his son.
(2) He had his son examined by a specialist.
About this pair, The Cambridge Grammar of the English Language (Page 1236) says:
we have equivalence between (1) and (2)
This I think means that we have equivalence in meaning between them.
But as for an apparently similar pair, Paul M. Postal says in his paper "On Raising" (page 320):
Thus, on one reading at least, the following are not semantically equivalent:
(86) a. Tom had Melvin interrogate the witness.
b. Tom had the witness interrogated by Melvin.
I don't see any reason for treating the examples in CGEL and 'On Raising' differently, so why is it that CGEL says the passivation doesn't change the meaning whereas Postal says it does change the meaning "on one reading at least"?
passive-voice causative-verbs
asked 6 mins ago
JK2JK2
37711751
(1) He had a specialist examine his son.
(2) He had his son examined by a specialist.
About this pair, The Cambridge Grammar of the English Language (Page 1236) says:
we have equivalence between (1) and (2)
This I think means that we have equivalence in meaning between them.
But as for an apparently similar pair, Paul M. Postal says in his paper "On Raising" (page 320):
Thus, on one reading at least, the following are not semantically equivalent:
(86) a. Tom had Melvin interrogate the witness.
b. Tom had the witness interrogated by Melvin.
I don't see any reason for treating the examples in CGEL and 'On Raising' differently, so why is it that CGEL says the passivation doesn't change the meaning whereas Postal says it does change the meaning "on one reading at least"?
passive-voice causative-verbs
passive-voice causative-verbs
asked 6 mins ago
JK2JK2
37711751
asked 6 mins ago
JK2JK2
37711751
asked 6 mins ago
JK2JK2
37711751
asked 6 mins ago
JK2JK2
37711751
asked 6 mins ago
JK2JK2
37711751
37711751
add a comment |
add a comment |
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