Non-finite clause or to-infinitive?
0
I'm analysing this sentence complex in terms of sentence trees and am a bit at a loss here.
He began to swim again, feeling suddenly the desperate exhaustion of his body.
In the part "He began to swim again," is the "to swim again" a nonfinite clause or just a bare infinitive?
Do I write the tree as S --- Cl1 (He began) and then two subordinate semi-clauses Cl2 (to swim again) Cl3 (feeling suddenly....)
OR
Is it Main clause (He began to swim again) with one subordinate nonfinite clause (feeling suddenly...)?
complex-sentences non-finite-verbs finite-verbs
edited Nov 21 '17 at 17:47
JonMark Perry
3,232102636
asked Nov 21 '17 at 17:19
cvesperccvesperc
1
add a comment |
0
I'm analysing this sentence complex in terms of sentence trees and am a bit at a loss here.
He began to swim again, feeling suddenly the desperate exhaustion of his body.
In the part "He began to swim again," is the "to swim again" a nonfinite clause or just a bare infinitive?
Do I write the tree as S --- Cl1 (He began) and then two subordinate semi-clauses Cl2 (to swim again) Cl3 (feeling suddenly....)
OR
Is it Main clause (He began to swim again) with one subordinate nonfinite clause (feeling suddenly...)?
complex-sentences non-finite-verbs finite-verbs
edited Nov 21 '17 at 17:47
JonMark Perry
3,232102636
asked Nov 21 '17 at 17:19
cvesperccvesperc
1
You can use either an infinitive (He began to cry) or a continuous verb form (He began crying) in contexts such as yours. But this sort of question belongs on English Language Learners.
– FumbleFingers
Nov 21 '17 at 17:44
Have you looked up the term bare infinitive? It means an infinitive without the to.
– 9fyj'j55-8ujfr5yhjky-'tt6yhkjj
Nov 21 '17 at 17:45
"To swim again" is a to infinitival clause. Infinitival clauses are non-finite. I'd analyse the entire sentence as the matrix clause with the subordinate embedded "feeling" clause as a depictive adjunct giving descriptive information about the referent of the subject "he".
– BillJ
Nov 21 '17 at 17:56
You're contrasting things that don't actually contrast. All infinitives are non-finite clauses, whether they appear with to or not. "Non-finite" is what infinitive means. A "bare infinitive" is an infinitive clause without a subject NP, which can be called a phrase if desired; there's still an implied subject, like you in imperatives, and there's sometimes other implied NPs, depending on context, construction, and predicate choices. And the same applies to the non-finite participle feeling, which relates to your original question.
– John Lawler
Nov 21 '17 at 19:48
The term "bare infinitival clause" has nothing to with the absence of a subject (an infinitival clause without a subject is simply called 'subjectless'). It's called "bare" because it lacks the marker to. See here: link and here link.Those infinitival clauses that do have the to marker are called to infinitivals.
– BillJ
Nov 22 '17 at 7:17
add a comment |
0
0
0
I'm analysing this sentence complex in terms of sentence trees and am a bit at a loss here.
He began to swim again, feeling suddenly the desperate exhaustion of his body.
In the part "He began to swim again," is the "to swim again" a nonfinite clause or just a bare infinitive?
Do I write the tree as S --- Cl1 (He began) and then two subordinate semi-clauses Cl2 (to swim again) Cl3 (feeling suddenly....)
OR
Is it Main clause (He began to swim again) with one subordinate nonfinite clause (feeling suddenly...)?
complex-sentences non-finite-verbs finite-verbs
edited Nov 21 '17 at 17:47
JonMark Perry
3,232102636
asked Nov 21 '17 at 17:19
cvesperccvesperc
1
I'm analysing this sentence complex in terms of sentence trees and am a bit at a loss here.
He began to swim again, feeling suddenly the desperate exhaustion of his body.
In the part "He began to swim again," is the "to swim again" a nonfinite clause or just a bare infinitive?
Do I write the tree as S --- Cl1 (He began) and then two subordinate semi-clauses Cl2 (to swim again) Cl3 (feeling suddenly....)
OR
Is it Main clause (He began to swim again) with one subordinate nonfinite clause (feeling suddenly...)?
complex-sentences non-finite-verbs finite-verbs
complex-sentences non-finite-verbs finite-verbs
edited Nov 21 '17 at 17:47
JonMark Perry
3,232102636
asked Nov 21 '17 at 17:19
cvesperccvesperc
1
edited Nov 21 '17 at 17:47
JonMark Perry
3,232102636
asked Nov 21 '17 at 17:19
cvesperccvesperc
1
edited Nov 21 '17 at 17:47
JonMark Perry
3,232102636
edited Nov 21 '17 at 17:47
JonMark Perry
3,232102636
edited Nov 21 '17 at 17:47
JonMark Perry
3,232102636
3,232102636
asked Nov 21 '17 at 17:19
cvesperccvesperc
1
asked Nov 21 '17 at 17:19
cvesperccvesperc
1
asked Nov 21 '17 at 17:19
cvesperccvesperc
1
1
You can use either an infinitive (He began to cry) or a continuous verb form (He began crying) in contexts such as yours. But this sort of question belongs on English Language Learners.
– FumbleFingers
Nov 21 '17 at 17:44
Have you looked up the term bare infinitive? It means an infinitive without the to.
– 9fyj'j55-8ujfr5yhjky-'tt6yhkjj
Nov 21 '17 at 17:45
"To swim again" is a to infinitival clause. Infinitival clauses are non-finite. I'd analyse the entire sentence as the matrix clause with the subordinate embedded "feeling" clause as a depictive adjunct giving descriptive information about the referent of the subject "he".
– BillJ
Nov 21 '17 at 17:56
You're contrasting things that don't actually contrast. All infinitives are non-finite clauses, whether they appear with to or not. "Non-finite" is what infinitive means. A "bare infinitive" is an infinitive clause without a subject NP, which can be called a phrase if desired; there's still an implied subject, like you in imperatives, and there's sometimes other implied NPs, depending on context, construction, and predicate choices. And the same applies to the non-finite participle feeling, which relates to your original question.
– John Lawler
Nov 21 '17 at 19:48
The term "bare infinitival clause" has nothing to with the absence of a subject (an infinitival clause without a subject is simply called 'subjectless'). It's called "bare" because it lacks the marker to. See here: link and here link.Those infinitival clauses that do have the to marker are called to infinitivals.
– BillJ
Nov 22 '17 at 7:17
add a comment |
You can use either an infinitive (He began to cry) or a continuous verb form (He began crying) in contexts such as yours. But this sort of question belongs on English Language Learners.
– FumbleFingers
Nov 21 '17 at 17:44
Have you looked up the term bare infinitive? It means an infinitive without the to.
– 9fyj'j55-8ujfr5yhjky-'tt6yhkjj
Nov 21 '17 at 17:45
"To swim again" is a to infinitival clause. Infinitival clauses are non-finite. I'd analyse the entire sentence as the matrix clause with the subordinate embedded "feeling" clause as a depictive adjunct giving descriptive information about the referent of the subject "he".
– BillJ
Nov 21 '17 at 17:56
You're contrasting things that don't actually contrast. All infinitives are non-finite clauses, whether they appear with to or not. "Non-finite" is what infinitive means. A "bare infinitive" is an infinitive clause without a subject NP, which can be called a phrase if desired; there's still an implied subject, like you in imperatives, and there's sometimes other implied NPs, depending on context, construction, and predicate choices. And the same applies to the non-finite participle feeling, which relates to your original question.
– John Lawler
Nov 21 '17 at 19:48
The term "bare infinitival clause" has nothing to with the absence of a subject (an infinitival clause without a subject is simply called 'subjectless'). It's called "bare" because it lacks the marker to. See here: link and here link.Those infinitival clauses that do have the to marker are called to infinitivals.
– BillJ
Nov 22 '17 at 7:17
You can use either an infinitive (He began to cry) or a continuous verb form (He began crying) in contexts such as yours. But this sort of question belongs on English Language Learners.
– FumbleFingers
Nov 21 '17 at 17:44
You can use either an infinitive (He began to cry) or a continuous verb form (He began crying) in contexts such as yours. But this sort of question belongs on English Language Learners.
– FumbleFingers
Nov 21 '17 at 17:44
Have you looked up the term bare infinitive? It means an infinitive without the to.
– 9fyj'j55-8ujfr5yhjky-'tt6yhkjj
Nov 21 '17 at 17:45
Have you looked up the term bare infinitive? It means an infinitive without the to.
– 9fyj'j55-8ujfr5yhjky-'tt6yhkjj
Nov 21 '17 at 17:45
"To swim again" is a to infinitival clause. Infinitival clauses are non-finite. I'd analyse the entire sentence as the matrix clause with the subordinate embedded "feeling" clause as a depictive adjunct giving descriptive information about the referent of the subject "he".
– BillJ
Nov 21 '17 at 17:56
"To swim again" is a to infinitival clause. Infinitival clauses are non-finite. I'd analyse the entire sentence as the matrix clause with the subordinate embedded "feeling" clause as a depictive adjunct giving descriptive information about the referent of the subject "he".
– BillJ
Nov 21 '17 at 17:56
You're contrasting things that don't actually contrast. All infinitives are non-finite clauses, whether they appear with to or not. "Non-finite" is what infinitive means. A "bare infinitive" is an infinitive clause without a subject NP, which can be called a phrase if desired; there's still an implied subject, like you in imperatives, and there's sometimes other implied NPs, depending on context, construction, and predicate choices. And the same applies to the non-finite participle feeling, which relates to your original question.
– John Lawler
Nov 21 '17 at 19:48
You're contrasting things that don't actually contrast. All infinitives are non-finite clauses, whether they appear with to or not. "Non-finite" is what infinitive means. A "bare infinitive" is an infinitive clause without a subject NP, which can be called a phrase if desired; there's still an implied subject, like you in imperatives, and there's sometimes other implied NPs, depending on context, construction, and predicate choices. And the same applies to the non-finite participle feeling, which relates to your original question.
– John Lawler
Nov 21 '17 at 19:48
The term "bare infinitival clause" has nothing to with the absence of a subject (an infinitival clause without a subject is simply called 'subjectless'). It's called "bare" because it lacks the marker to. See here: link and here link.Those infinitival clauses that do have the to marker are called to infinitivals.
– BillJ
Nov 22 '17 at 7:17
The term "bare infinitival clause" has nothing to with the absence of a subject (an infinitival clause without a subject is simply called 'subjectless'). It's called "bare" because it lacks the marker to. See here: link and here link.Those infinitival clauses that do have the to marker are called to infinitivals.
– BillJ
Nov 22 '17 at 7:17
add a comment |
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(He began) is the main clause and (to swim again) is an independent clause.
thank you
Shalvin
answered 9 mins ago
Shalvin KumarShalvin Kumar
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(He began) is the main clause and (to swim again) is an independent clause.
thank you
Shalvin
answered 9 mins ago
Shalvin KumarShalvin Kumar
1
New contributor
Shalvin Kumar is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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add a comment |
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(He began) is the main clause and (to swim again) is an independent clause.
thank you
Shalvin
answered 9 mins ago
Shalvin KumarShalvin Kumar
1
New contributor
Shalvin Kumar is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
add a comment |
0
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(He began) is the main clause and (to swim again) is an independent clause.
thank you
Shalvin
answered 9 mins ago
Shalvin KumarShalvin Kumar
1
New contributor
Shalvin Kumar is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
(He began) is the main clause and (to swim again) is an independent clause.
thank you
Shalvin
answered 9 mins ago
Shalvin KumarShalvin Kumar
1
New contributor
Shalvin Kumar is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
answered 9 mins ago
Shalvin KumarShalvin Kumar
1
New contributor
Shalvin Kumar is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
answered 9 mins ago
Shalvin KumarShalvin Kumar
1
answered 9 mins ago
Shalvin KumarShalvin Kumar
1
1
New contributor
Shalvin Kumar is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
New contributor
Shalvin Kumar is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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You can use either an infinitive (He began to cry) or a continuous verb form (He began crying) in contexts such as yours. But this sort of question belongs on English Language Learners.
– FumbleFingers
Nov 21 '17 at 17:44
Have you looked up the term bare infinitive? It means an infinitive without the to.
– 9fyj'j55-8ujfr5yhjky-'tt6yhkjj
Nov 21 '17 at 17:45
"To swim again" is a to infinitival clause. Infinitival clauses are non-finite. I'd analyse the entire sentence as the matrix clause with the subordinate embedded "feeling" clause as a depictive adjunct giving descriptive information about the referent of the subject "he".
– BillJ
Nov 21 '17 at 17:56
You're contrasting things that don't actually contrast. All infinitives are non-finite clauses, whether they appear with to or not. "Non-finite" is what infinitive means. A "bare infinitive" is an infinitive clause without a subject NP, which can be called a phrase if desired; there's still an implied subject, like you in imperatives, and there's sometimes other implied NPs, depending on context, construction, and predicate choices. And the same applies to the non-finite participle feeling, which relates to your original question.
– John Lawler
Nov 21 '17 at 19:48
The term "bare infinitival clause" has nothing to with the absence of a subject (an infinitival clause without a subject is simply called 'subjectless'). It's called "bare" because it lacks the marker to. See here: link and here link.Those infinitival clauses that do have the to marker are called to infinitivals.
– BillJ
Nov 22 '17 at 7:17